Nursing accreditation tests. Early signs of heatstroke, except. Irrigoscopy - X-ray examination

NURSING IN THERAPY

medical care

Tasks in the test form for security 3

NURSING IN PULMONOLOGY 4

NURSING IN CARDIOLOGY 5

NURSING IN GASTROENTEROLOGY 6

NURSING IN NEPHROLOGY 7

NURSING IN HEMATOLOGY 7

NURSING IN ENDOCRINOLOGY 8

NURSING PROCESS IN JOINT DISEASES 9

INTRODUCTION

Dear colleagues!

Student education in medical college(school) ends with a final certification, which includes issues of therapy. This guide will help you prepare for your upcoming assessment.

In preparation for certification, you should:

1. Test your knowledge:

• 
  answer the tasks in the test form in all sections;
• 
  compare your answers with standards;
• 
  evaluate your knowledge of the following criteria:
• 
  91-100% correct answers - "excellent";
• 
  81-90% of correct answers - "good";
• 
  71-80% of correct answers - "satisfactory";
• 
  70% or less of correct answers - "unsatisfactory".

3. Repeat the solution of tasks in the test form.

We wish you success!

Requirements of the State Educational Standard for the level of training of specialists in the field of therapy for the specialty 0406 Nursing, the basic level of secondary vocational education

• 
  know the system of organization of therapeutic care;
• 
  know the causes, clinical manifestations, diagnostic methods, complications, principles of treatment and prevention of diseases internal organs;
• 
  possess professional communication skills;
• 
  be able to perform nursing manipulations to care for patients with diseases of the internal organs;
• 
  be able to prepare the patient for special methods diagnostics;
• 
  be able to carry out nursing process when caring for patients with diseases of internal organs;
• 
  be able to draw up medical documentation;
• 
  be able to provide first aid at emergency conditions in therapy.

Tasks in a test form for security

a) intramuscularly

b) intramuscularly or subcutaneously

c) strictly subcutaneously

d) strictly intradermally

2. Sick after spinal tap it is necessary to lay

a) on the stomach without a pillow

b) on the back with a raised head end

c) on the side with the knees brought to the stomach

d) half sitting

3. The maximum volume of drugs administered intramuscularly in one place does not exceed

a) 5 ml

b) 10 ml

c) 15 ml

d) 20 ml

4. Urgent care in anaphylactic shock begins to appear

a) in the treatment room

b) in the intensive care unit

c) in the intensive care unit

d) at the site of development

5. In anaphylactic shock caused by intravenous drip of drugs, the main thing is

a) remove the drip

b) close the dropper, while maintaining access to the vein

c) creating mental peace

d) oral antihistamines

6. When using cardiac glycosides, you should monitor:

a) body temperature

b) pulse rate

c) urine color

d) sleep

7. Enzymatic preparations (mezim, festal) are taken

a) regardless of food intake

b) strictly on an empty stomach

c) while eating

d) 2-3 hours after eating

8. It is not necessary to protect the respiratory organs with a mask when

a) taking blood from a vein

b) taking a smear from the pharynx and nose

c) caring for a cholera patient

d) preparation of chloramine solutions

9. Store insulin

a) at room temperature

b) at a temperature of +1 - + 10 FROM

c) at -1-+1 0 FROM

d) frozen

10. The type of transportation determines

a) a nurse in accordance with the patient's condition

b) a nurse in accordance with the patient's well-being

c) a doctor in accordance with the patient's well-being

d) a doctor according to the patient's condition

11. In case of a critical drop in temperature, do not

a) report the incident to the doctor

b) remove the pillow from under the head and raise the patient's legs

c) leave one patient to create maximum rest

d) give the patient hot tea

12. Taking material on bacteriological culture from the rectum is prohibited

a) rubber catheter

b) rectal loop

c) rectal swab

d) rectal glass tube

13. Working solutions of chloramine are used

a) once

b) during the shift

c) during the working day

d) before changing the color of the solution

14. After sublingual administration of clonidine in hypertensive crisis, the patient should remain in the supine position for at least

a) 10-15 minutes

b) 20-30 minutes

c) 1.5-2 hours

d) 12 hours

15. On hit oil solutions and suspensions in the blood vessel may develop

a) embolism

b) phlegmon

c) bleeding

d) vasospasm

16. With intramuscular administration of chlorpromazine, the patient needs

a) lie down for 1.5-2 hours

b) take antihistamines

c) put a heating pad on the injection site

d) eat

Sample answers

NURSING IN PULMONOLOGY

a) headache

b) weakness

c) pulmonary hemorrhage

d) cough with phlegm

2. To basic treatment bronchial asthma applies

a) anti-inflammatory therapy

b) enzyme therapy

c) elimination therapy

d) physiotherapy

3. The main symptom in bronchial asthma

a) inspiratory dyspnea

b) cough with purulent sputum

c) hemoptysis

d) suffocation

4. forced position patient with an asthma attack

a) horizontal

b) horizontal with raised legs

c) lying on your side

d) sitting, with emphasis on hands

5. Peak flow is the definition

a) respiratory volume of the lungs

b) vital capacity lungs

c) residual lung volume

d) peak expiratory flow

6. Most informative method diagnosis of pneumonia

a) blood test

b) sputum analysis

c) pleural puncture

d) chest X-ray
7. The drainage position is given to the patient in order to

a) reduce fever

b) reduce shortness of breath

c) bronchial dilatation

d) facilitate sputum discharge

8. Individual pocket spittoon should be 1/4 full

a) water

b) saline

c) 25% soda solution

d) chloramine

9. lung abscess- this is

a) pneumonia

b) inflammation of the pleura

c) the formation of a cavity with pus

d) accumulation of fluid in pleural cavity

1. 
   With prolonged use of antibiotics, the patient may develop

b) fever

c) dysbacteriosis

d) weight gain

11. Risk factor for lung cancer

a) obesity

b) hypothermia

c) infection

d) smoking

12. The main symptom of dry pleurisy

a) shortness of breath

b) weakness

c) fever

d) chest pain

13. Pleural puncture with therapeutic purpose carried out at

a) bronchial asthma

b) pneumonia

c) chronic bronchitis

G) exudative pleurisy
14. Increased airiness of the lungs is

a) hydrothorax

b) hemothorax

c) pneumosclerosis

d) emphysema

15. The main symptoms of pneumonia

a) weakness, headache, glassy sputum

b) chest pain, shortness of breath, fever

c) prolonged subfebrile condition, fatigue

d) edema, increased blood pressure, rhythm disturbance

STANDARDS OF ANSWERS

NURSING IN CARDIOLOGY

a) beta-hemolytic streptococcus

b) Staphylococcus aureus

c) viruses

d) rickettsia

a) 10 minutes before meals

b) 20 minutes before meals

c) 30 minutes before meals

d) after eating

3. Possible Factor risk of hypertension

a) mental stress

b) focus of chronic infection

c) hypovitaminosis

d) hypothermia

4. BP 180/100 mm Hg. - this is

a) hypertension

b) hypotension

c) collapse

d) norm

5. Complications of hypertension

a) stroke, myocardial infarction

b) fainting, collapse

c) rheumatism, heart disease

d) pneumonia, pleurisy

6. Risk factor for atherosclerosis

a) high level cholesterol

b) physical education

c) uncomplicated heredity

d) rational nutrition

a) vitamin C

b) iron

c) potassium

d) cholesterol

8. The main symptom of angina pectoris

a) weakness

b) squeezing, pressing pain

c) shortness of breath

d) nausea

9. Independent Nursing Intervention for Compressive Chest Pain

a) the introduction of morphine

b) the introduction of analgin

c) sublingual nitroglycerin

d) diphenhydramine inside

10. Typical form of myocardial infarction

a) abdominal

b) anginal

c) asthmatic

d) painless

11. The appearance of suffocation, abundant foamy pink sputum in myocardial infarction is a manifestation

a) pneumonia

b) hemoptysis

c) pulmonary hemorrhage

d) pulmonary edema

12. Patient with myocardial infarction needs hospitalization

a) in the first hours of the disease

b) on the 2nd day of the disease

c) on the 3rd day of the disease

d) on the 4th day of the disease
13. The nurse imposes venous tourniquets on the limbs

a) bronchial asthma

b) fainting

c) angina pectoris

d) cardiac asthma

14. Edema cardiac origin appear

a) in the morning on the face

b) on my feet in the morning

c) in the evening on the face

d) on my feet in the evening

15. In the treatment of chronic heart failure are used

a) antibiotics, nitrofurans

b) bronchodilators, mucolytics

c) cytostatics, glucocorticosteroids

d) ACE inhibitors, diuretics

STANDARDS OF ANSWERS

NURSING IN GASTROENTEROLOGY

a) irrigoscopy

b) colonoscopy

c) sigmoidoscopy

d) esophagogastroduodenoscopy

2. The main cause of occurrence peptic ulcer stomach and duodenum

a) hypothermia, fatigue

b) Helicobacter pylori infection

c) physical overload, hypothermia

d) viral infection, hypothermia

3. Most common complication peptic ulcer

a) intestinal obstruction

b) cachexia

c) dehydration

G) stomach bleeding

4. Independent nursing intervention for gastric bleeding

a) gastric lavage

b) cleansing enema

c) belly warmer

d) an ice pack on the stomach
5. Patient with peptic ulcer is recommended

a) fasting

b) reducing the calorie content of the diet

c) fluid restriction

d) frequent fractional meals

6. The most informative method for diagnosing stomach cancer

a) gastric sounding

b) duodenal sounding

c) ultrasound examination

G) endoscopy with targeted biopsy

a) fluid restriction

b) salt restriction

c) foods rich in fiber

d) low fiber foods

8. Irrigoscopy is an x-ray contrast study

a) esophagus

b) stomach

c) small intestine

d) large intestine

9. Risk factor chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis of the liver

a) obesity

b) infection with hepatitis B viruses

c) hypodynamia

d) low standard of living

10. Warn chronic diseases liver can

a) prevention of acute viral hepatitis

b) hardening

c) exclusion of hypothermia

d) sanitation of foci of infection

11. Aggravation chronic cholecystitis provokes

a) stress

b) hypothermia

c) intake of carbohydrates

d) eating fatty foods

12. The main symptom of gallstone disease

a) decreased appetite

b) jaundice

c) nausea

d) pain in the right hypochondrium

STANDARDS OF ANSWERS

NURSING IN NEPHROLOGY

a) colorless

b) "beer"

c) straw yellow

d) "meat slops"

2. Urine for general clinical analysis the nurse must deliver to the laboratory within

a) 1 hour

b) 3 hours

at 5:00

d) 7 hours

3. To conduct a urine test according to the Zimnitsky method, the nurse prepares the patient

a) dry jar

b) sterile jar

c) dry tube

d) 8 dry cans

4. Nocturia is

a) decrease in the daily amount of urine less than 500 ml

b) an increase in the daily amount of urine more than 2000 ml

c) the predominance of nighttime diuresis over daytime diuresis

d) painful urination

5. The main cause of acute pyelonephritis

a) ascending urinary tract infection

b) malnutrition

c) hypothermia

d) stress

6. An attack of severe pain in the lower back with irradiation along the ureters in groin called

a) intestinal colic

b) renal colic

c) biliary colic

d) hepatic colic
7. In diagnostics urolithiasis has priority

a) physical examination

b) laboratory research

c) endoscopic examinations

d) ultrasound examination

8. Chronic renal failure develops in chronic

a) glomerulonephritis

b) hepatitis

c) pancreatitis

d) cystitis

9. When uremic coma odor in exhaled air

a) alcohol

b) ammonia

c) acetone

d) rotten eggs

10. With chronic kidney failure restricted in diet

a) proteins

b) vitamins

c) fats

d) carbohydrates

STANDARDS OF ANSWERS

NURSING IN HEMATOLOGY

a) vitamin deficiency

b) chronic blood loss

c) excessive consumption of carbohydrates

d) excessive protein intake

2. Product with the greatest content gland

a) cereal

b) milk

c) meat

d) beets

3. When treating B 12 -deficiency anemia is used

a) adrenaline

b) heparin

c) ferroplex

d) cyanocobalamin

4. Sternal puncture is performed for diagnosis

a) pleurisy

b) leukemia

c) pneumonia

d) cirrhosis of the liver

5. Manifestation of hemorrhagic syndrome in acute leukemia

a) weakness

b) fever

c) heaviness in the left hypochondrium

G) nose bleed

STANDARDS OF ANSWERS

NURSING IN ENDOCRINOLOGY

a) physical education

b) sedentary lifestyle

c) hypothermia

d) vegetarianism

2. Normal performance fasting blood glucose (mmol/l)

a) 1.1-2.2

b) 2.2-3.3

c) 3.3-5.5

d) 6.6-8.8

3. A disease in which tachycardia, exophthalmos, tremor are observed

a) hypothyroidism

b) thyrotoxicosis

c) diabetes

d) endemic goiter

4. With insufficient iodine content in food develops

a) diffuse toxic goiter

b) obesity

c) diabetes

d) endemic goiter
5. When diabetes noted in the blood test

a) hyperproteinemia

b) hypoproteinemia

c) hyperglycemia

d) hyperbilirubinemia

6. Complication of diabetes

a) ketoacidotic coma

b) hypertensive crisis

c) pulmonary edema

d) pulmonary bleeding

7. The main symptoms of a hypoglycemic state

a) pain in the heart, shortness of breath

b) shortness of breath, dry cough

c) swelling, headache

d) hunger, sweating

8. Independent Nursing Intervention for Hypoglycemia

a) the introduction of dibazol

b) administration of insulin

c) drink sweet tea

d) drink rosehip broth

STANDARDS OF ANSWERS

1. Antibiotic, more likely to cause an allergic reaction

a) lincomycin

b) penicillin

c) tetracycline

d) erythromycin

2. Tactics of a nurse with a threat of laryngeal edema outside a medical institution

a) outpatient care

b) referral to the clinic

c) referral for a blood test

G) urgent hospitalization

3. Emergency care for anaphylactic shock

a) adrenaline, prednisolone, reopoliglyukin

b) baralgin, no-shpa, morphine

c) clonidine, pentamine, lasix

d) nitroglycerin, analgin, validol

STANDARDS OF ANSWERS

NURSING PROCESS IN JOINT DISEASES

a) weakness

b) shortness of breath

in) morning stiffness joints

d) abdominal pain

2. Potential Problem patient with rheumatoid arthritis

a) jaundice

b) constipation

c) wet cough

d) deformity of the joints

a) to fight infection in the wound

b) to prevent infection in the wound

c) disinfection of instruments

d) sterilization of instruments

a) physical

b) chemical

c) mechanical

d) biological

a) autoclaving

a) 120°C - 40 min.

b) 180 ° C - 3 hours

c) 200°C - 40 min.

d) 180 ° C - 1 hour

a) in an autoclave

b) in a dry oven

c) cold

d) boiling

a) chlorhexidine bigluconate

b) hydrogen peroxide

c) furatsilin

d) ammonia

a) mechanical

b) physical

c) biological

d) chemical

a) hyperimmune plasma

c) wound drainage

d) hydrogen peroxide solution

a) thermometers

c) phenolphthalein test

d) amidopyrine test

b) only one type of material

a) 3 days

b) 1 day

c) 20 days

d) 6 hours

a) air embolism

b) an allergic reaction

c) an abscess

d) lipodystrophy

a) in sterile clothes

b) doesn't matter

c) clean clothes

a) sterile

b) disinfected

c) clean

d) prepared for surgery

a) decayed teeth

b) the external environment

in) inflamed tonsils

d) affected kidneys

a) airborne

b) contact

c) air-dust

d) lymphogenous

d) in 70° alcohol for 10 min.

Sample answers

ANESTHESIA

a) acute urinary retention

a) the introduction of promedol

b) shaving operating field

c) introduction urinary catheter

c) thermometry

a) underweight

b) alcohol abuse

c) allergic to anesthetics

d) the nature of nutrition

a) 2 hours before surgery

c) one day before surgery

d) 30 min. before surgery

a) dithylin

b) hexanal

c) atropine

d) calypsol

a) surgical sleep

b) excitement

c) analgesia

d) awakening

a) hexenal

b) nitrous oxide

c) owl

d) dikain

a) trilene

b) lidocaine

c) sodium thiopental

d) halothane

a) atropine

b) diphenhydramine

c) analgin

d) promedol

b) epidural space

c) substance of the spinal cord

d) muscle sheaths

27. Ether calls

c) metabolic acidosis

d) arterial hypotension

Sample answers

BLEEDING AND HEMOSTASIS

a) measure blood pressure

b) check for swelling

d) check the acuity of hearing

a) keep warm

b) breathe

c) highlight

d) play, study, work

b) violation of the integrity of the skin

c) external bleeding

d) sleep disturbance

a) the introduction of hemostatics

c) exercise therapy training

a) carry out PST of the wound

b) apply a pressure bandage

c) apply an arterial tourniquet

d) put ligatures on the vessel

b) tamponade of the wound

d) overlay pressure bandage

c) ligation of the artery

d) digital pressure of the artery

a) applying a pressure bandage

b) local application of cold

a) vikasol

b) hemostatic sponge

c) native plasma

G) calcium chloride

a) plasma transfusion

b) vessel prosthesis

c) electrocoagulation

d) suturing the vessel

a) applying a tourniquet

b) ice pack

c) vascular clamp

d) vessel ligation

a) capillary

b) mixed

c) venous

d) arterial

a) esophagus

b) leg veins

c) large veins of the neck

d) brachial artery

a) joint capsule

b) pleural cavity

in) abdominal cavity

d) pericardial sac

a) outside

b) internal

c) mixed

d) hidden

a) open fracture

c) capillary bleeding

a) scarlet and foamy

b) type " coffee grounds"

c) dark, clots

d) dark cherry color

a) put a heating pad on the stomach

a) native plasma

b) dicynone

c) hemostatic sponge

d) thrombin

a) hospitalize the patient

b) send to the clinic

c) relieve pain

d) gastric lavage

a) shrinks

b) is becoming more frequent

c) does not change

a) half sitting

b) lying on the stomach

c) lying down with legs down

a) wire

b) plastic bag

c) kapron thread

d) belt

a) corner of the lower jaw

b) collarbone

c) VI cervical vertebra

d) I rib

a) in the shoulder joint

c) in elbow joint

d) in wrist joint

Sample answers

BASICS OF TRANSFUSIOLOGY

1. Blood group containing agglutinogen B and agglutinin a

a) first

b) second

c) third

d) fourth

2. For hemostasis, blood is transfused to

b) accelerate blood clotting

c) increase in blood pressure

d) improve the activity of the heart

5. Blood group containing agglutinins a and b

a) first

b) second

c) third

d) fourth

6. During the test for Rh compatibility of the blood of the donor and the recipient, an agglutination reaction occurred in the test tube. This means that the blood

a) Rh positive

b) compatible with the Rh factor

c) Rh-negative

d) incompatible with the Rh factor

7. Rh factor is found in

a) plasma

b) leukocytes

c) erythrocytes

d) platelets

8. Blood type containing agglutinogens A and B

a) first

b) second

c) third

d) fourth

11. Components of the test for individual blood compatibility of the donor and recipient

a) donor plasma and recipient serum

b) recipient plasma and donor serum

c) donor plasma and recipient blood

d) recipient's serum and donor's blood

15. When conducting a test for group compatibility of the blood of the donor and the recipient, there was no agglutination. This means that the blood

a) Rh compatible

b) compatible by group membership

c) incompatible with the Rh factor

d) not compatible by group affiliation

17. The erythrocyte mass is used for the purpose

a) an increase in circulating blood volume

b) parenteral nutrition

c) detoxification

d) treatment of anemia

18. Reinfusion is

a) placental blood transfusion

b) transfusion of autologous blood

c) blood transfusion

d) direct blood transfusion

21. Agglutination reaction is

a) decreased blood clotting

b) immunization of blood with Rh factor

c) intravascular coagulation

d) gluing of erythrocytes with their subsequent destruction

24. To conduct a biological test, enter

a) 25 ml of blood once and observe the patient's condition for 5 minutes

b) three times 10 ml of blood with an interval of 3 minutes, observing the patient

c) 25 ml of blood, observe the patient's condition for 5 minutes

d) three times 25 ml of blood

26. Temperature regime when determining the blood group

29. Features intravenous administration protein hydrolysates

a) no biological sample required

b) are injected in a jet

c) a biological sample is required

d) administered drip 50-60 per minute.

30. Blood product is

a) albumin

b) erythrocyte mass

c) leukocyte mass

d) native plasma

32. After a blood transfusion, a nurse monitors

a) heart rate and temperature

b) pulse and blood pressure

c) diuresis and temperature

c) pulse, blood pressure, diuresis and temperature

34. Donated blood stored in the refrigerator at

35. In case of violation of the technique of blood transfusion, a complication may develop

a) citrate shock

b) anaphylactic shock

in) transfusion shock

d) air embolism

Sample answers

1 c, 2 b, 3 c, 4 b, 5 b, 6 d, 7 c, 8 d, 9 c, 10 c, 11 d, 12 a, 13 b, 14 b, 15 b, 16 a, 17 d , 18 b, 19 d, 20 b, 21 d, 22 a, 23 c, 24 b, 25 c, 26 a, 27 d, 28 b, 29 c, 30 a, 31 c, 32 d, 33 b, 34 c, 35

DESMURGY

2. Potential patient problem after plaster immobilization

a) circulatory disorders

b) development of contracture

c) chilliness of the limb

d) general increase in temperature

3. The main goal of a nurse's care of a patient with a bandage bandage on the limbs is to prevent

a) violations motor function

b) lack of self-care

c) circulatory disorders distal to the dressing

d) violations of thermoregulation

5. Soft bandage refers

a) gypsum bandage

b) scarf

c) Cramer's tire

d) Ilizarov apparatus

6. In case of injuries to the scalp, a bandage is applied

a) cruciform on the back of the head and neck

b) sling

c) spiral

d) "cap"

7. In case of injury in the area of ​​the shoulder joint, a bandage is applied

a) turtle

b) spiky

c) 8-shaped

8. For transport immobilization used

a) bus Kuzminsky

b) Beler tire

c) Cramer's tire

d) tire CITO

9. Type of bandage for sprains in ankle joint

a) spiral

b) 8-shaped

c) spiky

d) turtle

12. When assisting a victim with a clavicle injury, it is advisable to use

a) Kramer's tire

b) Deso bandage

c) plaster cast

G) spica bandage

13. An occlusive dressing is used when

a) arterial bleeding

b) broken ribs

c) valvular pneumothorax

d) open pneumothorax

15. Bandage used for injured fingers

a) cruciform

b) "glove"

c) turtle

d) crawling

16. If the lower jaw is fractured, a bandage is necessary

a) returning

b) sling

c) 8-shaped

d) cruciform

19. After opening the carbuncle on the back of the neck, it is better to use a bandage

a) "cap"

b) cruciform

c) "bridle"

d) returning

20. Dezo bandage is used for a fracture

a) forearm bones

b) sternum

c) clavicle

21. When a hand burns with boiling water, a bandage is applied

a) converging

b) glue

c) "mitten"

d) "glove"

22. Adhesive plaster bandage is applied in case of a fracture

a) chest

c) clavicle

d) spine

24. When dislocating the shoulder, apply a bandage

a) scarf

b) spiral

c) 8-shaped

d) circular

Sample answers

1a, 2b, 3c, 4c, 5b, 6d, 7b, 8c, 9b, 10b, 11c, 12b, 13d, 14a, 15b, 16b, 17b , 18 a, 19 b, 20 c, 21 c, 22 b, 23 b, 24 a, 25 b, 26 c, 27 a.

Sample answers

1b, 2a, 3a, 4c, 5d, 6c, 7c, 8b, 9c, 10d, 11c, 12a, 13b, 14b, 15a, 16b, 17a , 18 c, 19 a, 20 b, 21 c, 22 d, 23 b, 24 d, 25 b, 26 a, 27 c, 28 b, 29 d, 30 a, 31 b, 32 d, 33 b, 34 c , 35 a, 36 c, 37 g, 38 c, 39 a, 40 c.

Sample answers

1 c, 2 b, 3 a, 4 c, 5 a, 6 a, 7 a, 8 c, 9 b, 10 c, 11 a, 12 a, 13 b, 14 d, 15 c, 16 d, 17 c , 18 d, 19 a, 20 a, 21 d, 22 b, 23 a, 24 a, 25 c, 26 d, 27 a, 28 c, 29 b, 30 b, 31 c, 32 d, 33 b, 34 b, 35 d, 36 b, 37 b, 38 c, 39 c, 40 a, 41 c, 42 a, 43 c, 44 d, 45 d, 46 c, 47a, 48 b, 49 c, 50 c, 51 a, 52a, 53b, 54c, 55c, 56d, 57b, 58c, 59a, 60b, 61a, 62a, 63b, 64c, 65c, 66a, 67d, 68 d, 69c, 70c, 71c, 72a, 73a, 74c, 75a, 76d, 77b, 78c, 79c, 80b, 81c, 82c, 83b, 84a, 85 c, 86 a, 87 d, 88 a.

Sample answers

1a, 2c, 3a, 4b, 5b, 6a, 7d, 8b, 9c, 10c, 11a, 12b, 13c, 14b, 15c, 16d, 17d , 18 c, 19 a, 20 g, 21 g, 22 g, 23 c, 24 b, 25 b, 26 c, 27 c, 28 g, 29 a, 30 c, 31 a, 32 c, 33 c, 34 a, 35 b, 36 b, 37 a, 38 b, 39 b, 40 d, 41 a, 42 a, 43 c, 44 a, 45 d.

Sample answers

1c, 2d, 3d, 4a, 5a, 6c, 7c, 8b, 9a, 10c, 11c, 12d, 13c, 14a, 15b, 16a, 17d , 18 c, 19 b.

Sample answers

1c, 2b, 3a, 4d, 5b, 6b, 7d, 8c, 9b, 10c, 11c, 12a, 13d, 14c, 15c, 16c, 17b , 18 b, 19 d, 20 a, 21 d, 22 c, 23 a, 24 b, 25 b, 26 c, 27 c, 28 c.

SYNDROME "ACUTE BODY".
DAMAGES AND DISEASES OF THE RECTUM

21. Peritonitis develops when damaged

b) intestines

c) anal canal

d) spleen

22. "Cloiber bowls" on the radiograph are characteristic of

a) liver rupture

b) intestinal bleeding

c) intestinal obstruction

d) intestinal perforation

24. Contraindications for surgery with acute appendicitis

a) old age

b) absent

in) hypertonic disease

d) acute pneumonia

25. In acute peritonitis, an operation is performed

a) diagnostic

b) planned

c) urgent

d) emergency

26. Kocher's symptom is observed in acute

a) appendicitis

b) cholecystitis

c) paraproctitis

d) pancreatitis

27. In general analysis blood in acute appendicitis

a) eosinophilia

b) anemia

c) leukocytosis

d) no change

28. The nature and localization of pain during acute cholecystitis

b) constant, sharp in the right hypochondrium

d) "dagger" in the epigastrium

32. Transportation of a patient with peritonitis is carried out

a) public transport

c) lying on a stretcher

c) lying on a shield

33. A "board-shaped" abdomen is observed with

a) liver damage

b) perforated stomach ulcer

c) stomach bleeding

d) acute appendicitis

34. With intestinal obstruction, the stomach

a) not changed

b) plank

c) asymmetrical, swollen

d) pulled in

35. Tactics of a paramedic in acute cholecystitis

a) cold on the stomach, hospitalization

b) heating pad on the liver area

in) " blind probing"

d) choleretic drugs on an outpatient basis

37. The nature and localization of pain in perforated gastric ulcer

a) constant, strong in the right iliac region

c) girdle, blunt character

d) "dagger" in the epigastrium

38. The nature and localization of pain in acute appendicitis

a) permanent severe pain in the right iliac region

b) constant, sharp pain in the right hypochondrium

c) girdle, blunt character

d) "dagger" in the epigastrium

40. The nature of pathological impurities in the stool with hemorrhoids

a) mixed with blood stool

b) tarry stool

c) stool with mucus

d) blood is not mixed with feces

41. Hemorrhoids can get worse

a) thrombosis hemorrhoids

b) inflammation of the skin around anus

c) dermatitis

d) dyspepsia

a) inflammation of the veins of the rectum

b) rectal prolapse

c) inflammation of the perirectal tissue

d) inflammation of the rectum

44. Symptoms of subcutaneous paraproctitis

a) tense blue-purple knots in the anus

b) cracks in the region of the posterior commissure

c) pain, swelling, hyperemia of the skin around anus

d) itching anal area

47. Reliable symptom of appendicitis

a) diffuse pain in the abdomen

b) nausea

c) bloating

d) Shchetkin-Blumberg symptom

49. In acute appendicitis, the position of the patient lying on

a) right side

b) left side

c) back, with head down

d) stomach

53. Melena is a symptom characteristic of

a) stomach bleeding

b) pancreatitis

c) cholecystitis

d) appendicitis

54. "Sickle" of air in the radiography of the abdominal cavity is characteristic of

a) intestinal obstruction

b) perforated ulcer

c) bleeding ulcer

d) pancreatitis

55. A complication of gastric ulcer is

a) intestinal obstruction

b) strangulated hernia

d) perforation

57. The main thing in the treatment of peritonitis is

a) antibiotic therapy

b) laparotomy

c) detoxification therapy

d) laparoscopy

Sample answers

1c, 2b, 3a, 4a, 5c, 6b, 7a, 8d, 9b, 10a, 11c, 12c, 13c, 14a, 15b, 16c, 17a , 18 d, 19 c, 20 c, 21 b, 22 c, 23 a, 24 b, 25 d, 26 a, 27 c, 28 b, 29 d, 30 b, 31 c, 32 c, 33 b, 34 c, 35a, 36a, 37d, 38a, 39c, 40d, 41a, 42a, 43c, 44c, 45a, 46c, 47d, 48d, 49a, 50b, 51 c, 52 d, 53 a, 54 b, 55 a, 56 c, 57 b.

Sample answers

1 d, 2 b, 3 b, 4 c, 5 a, 6 d, 7 b, 8 b, 9 d, 10 b, 11 a, 12 b, 13 b, 14 b, 15 b, 16 c, 17 c , 18 c, 19 b, 20 b, 21 c, 22 c, 23 g, 24 b.

BASICS OF REANIMATOLOGY

1. Main measures for removing from the state clinical death

a) give a sniff of ammonia

b) artificial lung ventilation (ALV)

c) conducting a closed heart massage

G) simultaneous holding IVL and closed heart massage

2. When carrying out indirect massage heart compression on the sternum of an adult produce

a) whole hand

b) the proximal part of the palm

c) three fingers

d) one finger

5. When conducting a closed heart massage, the surface on which the patient lies must be

a) tough

b) soft

c) oblique

d) uneven

6. Triple reception to ensure free passage respiratory tract includes

a) position on the back, the head is turned to one side, the lower jaw is pushed forward

b) a roller is placed under the shoulder blades, the head is bent backwards, the lower jaw is pushed forward

c) position on the back, the head is bent forward, the lower jaw is pressed to the upper

d) position on the back, a roller is placed under the shoulder blades, the lower jaw is pressed against the upper

14. Signs of clinical death

a) loss of consciousness and no pulse carotid arteries

b) confusion and agitation

c) thready pulse on the carotid arteries

d) breathing is not disturbed

16. When performing an external heart massage, the palms should be placed

a) on the upper third of the sternum

b) on the border of the upper and middle thirds of the sternum

c) on the border of the middle and lower thirds of the sternum

d) in the fifth intercostal space on the left

17. Closed massage the hearts of the newborn

a) both hands

b) four fingers of the right hand

c) the proximal part of the right hand

d) two fingers

20. Indications for termination of resuscitation

a) no symptoms effective blood circulation

b) lack of spontaneous breathing

c) the appearance of symptoms biological death

d) wide pupils

25. Reliable sign biological death

a) stop breathing

b) cessation of cardiac activity

c) pupil dilation

d) a symptom cat eye"

Sample answers

1 d, 2 b, 3 d, 4 c, 5 a, 6 b, 7 d, 8 c, 9 d, 10 d, 11 b, 12 b, 13 c, 14 a, 15 b, 16 c, 17 d , 18 b, 19 a, 20 c, 21 c, 22 d, 23 c, 24 a, 25 d.

IGA tests "Nursing in surgery"

PREVENTION OF SURGICAL HOSPITAL INFECTION.
INFECTIOUS SAFETY IN THE WORK OF A NURSE

1. Asepsis is a set of measures

a) to fight infection in the wound

b) to prevent infection in the wound

c) disinfection of instruments

d) sterilization of instruments

2. Antisepsis is a set of measures

a) to fight infection in the wound

b) to prevent infection in the wound

c) disinfection of instruments

d) sterilization of instruments

8. The use of hydrogen peroxide refers to the method of antiseptics

a) physical

b) chemical

c) mechanical

d) biological

9. The physical method of sterilization includes

a) autoclaving

b) immersion in 70% solution ethyl alcohol

c) immersion in 6% hydrogen peroxide solution

d) exposure to formalin vapors

13. The main mode of dry heat sterilization of instruments

a) 120°C - 40 min.

b) 180 ° C - 3 hours

c) 200°C - 40 min.

d) 180 ° C - 1 hour

15. Instrumentation for endosurgery is sterilized

a) in an autoclave

b) in a dry oven

c) cold

d) boiling

16. Antiseptic used to treat the surgical field

a) chlorhexidine bigluconate

b) hydrogen peroxide

c) furatsilin

d) ammonia

18. The use of a laser in surgery refers to antiseptics

a) mechanical

b) physical

c) biological

d) chemical

19. Biological antiseptics include the use

a) hyperimmune plasma

b) primary surgical treatment of wounds

c) wound drainage

d) hydrogen peroxide solution

21. To control the quality of preoperative hand treatment, use

a) thermometers

b) bacteriological control

c) phenolphthalein test

d) amidopyrine test

22. When laying the bix, it is laid in it

a) everything necessary for a specific operation

b) only one type of material

c) necessary during the working day of the dressing

d) necessary to prepare the operating sister for surgery

23. The shelf life of a closed sterile bix without a filter is not more than

a) 3 days

b) 1 day

c) 20 days

d) 6 hours

26. Violation of the asepsis of the injection can lead to

a) air embolism

b) an allergic reaction

c) an abscess

d) lipodystrophy

31. All participants in the operation must be

a) in sterile clothes

b) doesn't matter

c) clean clothes

d) in sterile clothes and a mask

34. Hands after their surgical disinfection become

a) sterile

b) disinfected

c) clean

d) prepared for surgery

36. Exogenous way entry of infection into the wound

a) decayed teeth

b) the external environment

c) swollen tonsils

d) affected kidneys

37. Endogenous way of penetration of infection into the wound

a) airborne

b) contact

c) air-dust

d) lymphogenous

39. Mode of sterilization of endoscopic equipment

a) in 3% chloramine solution for 30 minutes.

b) in 6% hydrogen peroxide solution 360 min.

c) in 10% hydrogen peroxide solution for 60 min.

d) in 70° alcohol for 10 min.

Sample answers

1b, 2a, 3b, 4a, 5c, 6c, 7b, 8b, 9a, 10d, 11b, 12c, 13d, 14b, 15c, 16a, 17d , 18 b, 19 a, 20 d, 21 b, 22 b, 23 a, 24 a, 25 b, 26 c, 27 b, 28 c, 29 a, 30 d, 31 d, 32 b, 33 b, 34 b, 35 a, 36 b, 37 d, 38 b, 39 b, 40 d, 41 b, 42 b.

ANESTHESIA

1. Priority patient problem after general anesthesia

a) acute urinary retention

c) lack of self-hygiene

d) restriction physical activity

2. Independent action of the nurse in preparing the patient for local anesthesia

a) the introduction of promedol

b) shaving the surgical field

c) insertion of a urinary catheter

d) administering a cleansing enema

3. The first step in the nurse's care plan after surgery under general anesthesia will be

a) preparing the bed for the reception of the patient

b) monitoring the condition of the skin

c) thermometry

d) teaching the patient self-care at home

4. The risk factor in the development of complications during local anesthesia is

a) underweight

b) alcohol abuse

c) allergic to anesthetics

d) the nature of nutrition

8. Conduction anesthesia at the opening of panaritium is carried out with a solution of novocaine

9. Premedication is carried out with planned operations

a) 2 hours before surgery

b) immediately before the operation

c) one day before surgery

d) 30 min. before surgery

10. When conducting premedication before general anesthesia, use

a) dithylin

b) hexanal

c) atropine

d) calypsol

12. II stage of anesthesia is the stage

a) surgical sleep

b) excitement

c) analgesia

d) awakening

17. For inhalation anesthesia applied

a) hexenal

b) nitrous oxide

c) owl

d) dikain

18. For intravenous anesthesia use

a) trilene

b) lidocaine

c) sodium thiopental

d) halothane

22. The stage of ether anesthesia, in which the patient's consciousness is already completely turned off

23. To prevent hypersalivation and hypersecretion of the tracheobronchial tree, a solution is injected before anesthesia

a) atropine

b) diphenhydramine

c) analgin

d) promedol

25. In spinal anesthesia, an anesthetic is injected into

a) subarachnoid space

b) epidural space

c) substance of the spinal cord

d) muscle sheaths

27. Ether calls

a) violation of the conduction of the heart

b) irritation of the mucous membrane of the respiratory tract

c) metabolic acidosis

d) arterial hypotension

Sample answers

1b, 2b, 3a, 4c, 5a, 6c, 7a, 8c, 9d, 10c, 11d, 12b, 13c, 14b, 15c, 16b, 17b , 18 c, 19 b, 20 c, 21 b, 22 d, 23 a, 24 c, 25 a, 26 b, 27 b, 28 d.

BLEEDING AND HEMOSTASIS

2. When examining a patient with gastric bleeding, a nurse

a) measure blood pressure

b) check for swelling

c) assess the condition of the lymph nodes

d) check the acuity of hearing

3. In a patient with pulmonary hemorrhage, the satisfaction of needs is primarily impaired

a) keep warm

b) breathe

c) highlight

d) play, study, work

5. Priority problem in a patient with a cut wound of the shoulder and arterial bleeding

a) lack of desire to take care of oneself

b) violation of the integrity of the skin

c) external bleeding

d) sleep disturbance

6. Nurse independent action to meet the need to breathe in a patient with pulmonary hemorrhage

a) the introduction of hemostatics

b) applying cold to chest and head

c) exercise therapy training

d) preparing a set of tools for pleural puncture

7. Nurse to solve the problem of venous bleeding from the wound

a) carry out PST of the wound

b) apply a pressure bandage

c) apply an arterial tourniquet

d) put ligatures on the vessel

8. Nursing intervention for bleeding from the femoral artery

a) use of a hemostatic sponge

b) tamponade of the wound

c) overlay tourniquet

d) applying a pressure bandage

11. Dependent nursing intervention for external arterial bleeding

a) application of an arterial tourniquet

b) the introduction of blood-substituting drugs

c) ligation of the artery

d) digital pressure of the artery

12. Method for temporarily stopping external arterial bleeding

a) applying a pressure bandage

b) local application of cold

c) finger pressure of the vessel to the bone

d) elevated position of the limb

13. Biological agent local application to stop bleeding

a) vikasol

b) hemostatic sponge

c) native plasma

d) calcium chloride

14. Physical method final stop bleeding

a) plasma transfusion

b) vessel prosthesis

c) electrocoagulation

d) suturing the vessel

15. For the final stop of bleeding mechanically apply

a) applying a tourniquet

b) ice pack

c) vascular clamp

d) vessel ligation

17. The flow of blood in a continuous stream of dark cherry color characterizes bleeding.

a) capillary

b) mixed

c) venous

d) arterial

18. The development of an air embolism is dangerous bleeding from

a) esophagus

b) leg veins

c) large veins of the neck

d) brachial artery

19. Hemothorax is an accumulation of blood in

a) joint capsule

b) pleural cavity

c) abdominal cavity

d) pericardial sac

21. Bleeding from the brachial artery is called

a) outside

b) internal

c) mixed

d) hidden

22. The tourniquet should be applied when

a) open fracture

b) bleeding from the veins of the forearm

c) capillary bleeding

d) bleeding from popliteal artery

23. When pulmonary hemorrhage blood is released

a) scarlet and foamy

b) "coffee grounds" type

c) dark, clots

d) dark cherry color

24. A patient with tarry stool needs

a) put a heating pad on the stomach

b) perform cold hand and foot baths

c) make a cleansing enema with cold water

d) ensure peace, inform the doctor

26. biological preparation general action to stop bleeding

a) native plasma

b) dicynone

c) hemostatic sponge

d) thrombin

29. If gastric bleeding is suspected,

a) hospitalize the patient

b) send to the clinic

c) relieve pain

d) gastric lavage

30. With massive internal bleeding, the pulse

a) shrinks

b) is becoming more frequent

c) does not change

31. A patient with massive blood loss is transported

a) half sitting

b) lying on the stomach

c) lying down with legs down

d) lying with a raised foot end

32. Handy tool to stop arterial bleeding

a) wire

b) plastic bag

c) kapron thread

d) belt

33. The subclavian artery, when bleeding from it, is pressed against

a) corner of the lower jaw

b) collarbone

c) VI cervical vertebra

d) I rib

34. arterial bleeding from a wound in the upper third of the forearm can be stopped by bending the arm

a) in the shoulder joint

b) in the shoulder and elbow joints

c) in the elbow joint

d) in the wrist joint

Sample answers

1b, 2a, 3b, 4b, 5a, 6b, 7b, 8c, 9a, 10b, 11b, 12c, 13b, 14c, 15d, 16a, 17c , 18 c, 19 b, 20 b, 21 a, 22 d, 23 a, 24 d, 25 c, 26 a, 27 c, 28 b, 29 a, 30 b, 31 d, 32 d, 33 d, 34 c, 35 a.

1. How is the disinfection of the used dressing material infected with HIV?
1) 10% clarified bleach solution - 2 hours+
2) 10% chloramine solution - 60 minutes
3) 3% chloramine solution for 60 minutes
4) 1% chloramine solution - 60 minutes

2. How many levels are there in the hierarchy of basic vital needs according to A. Maslow?
1) fourteen
2) ten
3) five+
4) three

3. Determine the mode of sterilization of gloves in an autoclave.
1) pressure 2 atm., time 10 min
2) pressure 2 atm., 45 min
3) pressure 1.1 atm., 45 min+
4) pressure 0.5 atm., 20 min

4. What are the goals of nursing care?
1) short term+
2) general
3) personal
4) not specific

5. Determine the type of problem: The patient has not had a stool for 48 hours.
1) minor
2) potential
3) emotional
4) real+

6. What solution is needed to disinfect floors in case of anaerobic infection?
1) 10% bleach
2) 6% hydrogen peroxide with 0.5% detergent solution +
3) 6% hydrogen peroxide
4) 3% chloramine

7. How are pulses distinguished by filling?
1) rhythmic, arrhythmic
2) fast, slow
3) full, empty+
4) hard, soft

8. What is The final stage nursing process?
1) determining the effectiveness of ongoing nursing care +
2) choice of priorities
3) identifying the patient's problems
4) identification of disturbed needs of the body

9. What is the name of the complete destruction of microorganisms, spores and viruses?
1) disinfection
2) Sterilization+
3) disinfestation
4) deratization

10. What solution is used to treat the skin if HIV-infected material comes into contact with it?
1) 6% hydrogen peroxide solution
2) 3% hydrogen peroxide solution
3) 70 deg. alcohol+
4) 96 deg. alcohol

11. How long does it take to disinfect medical thermometers in a 3% hydrogen peroxide solution?
1) 45 min
2)300 min
3) 20 min
4) 180 min+

12. What position of the patient's hands causes danger when transporting him on a wheelchair?
1) on the stomach
2) in a crossed state
3) on the armrests
4) outside armrests+

13. Select the correct mode for sterilizing syringes and needles in an autoclave:
1) T=120 min. t=100 deg. With P=1.1 atm.
2) T=60 min. t=180 deg. With P=2 atm.
3) T=45 min. t=140 deg. With P \u003d 1 atm.
4) T=20 min. t=132 deg. With P=2 atm. +

14. Where is heparin most often injected into the subcutaneous tissue?
1) shoulder
2) belly+
3) forearms
4) buttocks

15. How is the skin treated if HIV-infected material gets on it?
1) 96o alcohol
2) 70o alcohol +
3) 6% hydrogen peroxide solution
4) 3% hydrogen peroxide solution

16. How long does it take to disinfect objects with a 5% chloramine solution that a tuberculosis patient has come into contact with?
1) 240min+
2) 120min
3) 60min
4) 30min

17. The period of use of a cleaning solution containing 6% H2O2, if it has not changed color during operation:
1) 72 hours
2) 48 hours
3) 24 hours+
4) once

18. Choose the most reliable sterilization control method:
1) mechanical
2) chemical
3) physical
4) biological+

19. What water is used after pre-sterilization cleaning for washing medical instruments?
1) flowing+
2) boiled
3) distilled
4) sterile

20. What should be the disinfectant solution for general cleaning of the operating room?
1) 6% hydrogen peroxide solution with 0.5% detergent solution +
2) 5% chloramine solution
3) 1% chloramine solution
4) 0.1% deoxon solution

21. What should be monitored when using cardiac glycosides?
1) body temperature
2) pulse rate+
3) urine color
4) sleep

22. The concentration of alcohol used to treat the patient's skin before injection (in degrees):
1) 96
2) 80
3) 70+
4) 60

23. How long should you wash your hands after any manipulation?
15 minutes
2) 1 min
3) 30 sec
4) 15 sec+

24. What does the nurse of the admission department of the hospital fill out?
1) title page of the medical record+
2) temperature sheet
3) certificate of incapacity for work
4) list of medical appointments

1. What is not included in the concept of "care for the sick"?
-a) Creation and maintenance of a sanitary and hygienic regime
-b) Hygienic maintenance of the patient
+c) Sending to a nursing home
2. What is not included in the duties of a nurse?
+ a) Washing floors
-b) Fulfillment of medical prescriptions
-c) Completion of medical documentation
3. What characterizes the specialty of a nurse in the first place?
-a) Medical ufology
+ b) Medical deontology
-c) Medical psychology
4. What personal qualities should a medical worker develop?
-a) childishness
+ b) Strict observance of personal hygiene and health
-c) commercialism
5. What does not apply to medical institutions?
+a) Terminals
-b) Outpatient clinics
-c) Hospitals

6. What type medical institutions include clinics?
-a) Hospital
-b) Hospice + c) Outpatient
7. On what principle do polyclinics work?
-a) localized
-b) Workshop
+ c) District
8. On what principle do medical units and health centers work?
-a) to the precinct
+ b) Workshop
-c) localized
9 A dispensary is a medical and preventive institution…
-a) Wide profile
-b) Creative profile
+ c) Narrow profile
10. To medical institutions stationary type not
relate…
+a) Ambulance stations
-b) Clinics
-c) Hospitals
11. What is not produced in admissions office hospital?
a) Anthropometry
+ b) Fingerprinting
-c) sanitization
12. Why cabinets with medicines of groups A and B should
lock up?
-a) Very expensive -b) Easily deteriorated in the light.
+ c) Potent and poisonous substances
13. What is the most important regimen in all medical institutions?
-a) Autocratic
-b) Conveyor
+ c) Sanitary
14. What diet medical nutrition does not exist?
-a) Diet No. 6
+ c) Diet number 20
-b) Diet number 15
15. Fever is...
-a) Atypical condition
-b) Metaphysical state
+ c) Adaptive reaction of the body

16. What type of decrease in body temperature does not exist?
+a) Thermodynamic
-b) Lytic
-c) Critical
17. Are body temperature and pulse related?
-a) not related
-b) In exceptional rare cases
+c) Connected
18. Hirudotherapy is a treatment…?
-a) Snails + b) Leeches
-c) Frogs
19. Minimal amount medicinal substance which gives curative
effect is called...?
+a) Therapeutic dose
-b) Psychological dose
-c) palliative dose
20. What is called idiosyncrasy?
+a) Hypersensitivity to the medicine
b) Reduced sensitivity to the drug
c) Lack of sensitivity to the drug
21. The method of drug administration through digestive tract is called...
-a) Parenteral
-b) Sublingual
+ c) Enteral
22. The method of administering medicines bypassing the digestive tract is called - ...
-a) Enteral
+b) Parenteral
-c) Inhalation
23. What injections do not exist?
-a) intravenous
-b) Subcutaneous
+ c) Gastronomic
24. Residue indicator detergents after washing the medical
instrument is ....-a) Benzidine test
-b) Triethylaluminum test
+ c) Phenolphthalein test
25 Indicator of blood residues after washing a medical instrument
is….
+a) Benzidine test
-b) Triethylaluminum test
-c) Phenolphthalein test
26. How is insulin administered?
a) intradermally
-b) Intra-arterial
+ c) Subcutaneously
27. What part human body often intramuscular
an injection?
-a) Lower quadrant of the gluteal muscles
+b) Upper quadrant of the gluteal muscles
-c) Doesn't matter

28. What system governs the entire human body?
+ a) Nervous
-b) Circulatory
-c) Digestive
29. Why is it necessary to check the presence of blood in the syringe during intramuscular
injections?
a) just out of curiosity
+ b) To ascertain the missing in the lumen blood vessel in) To accelerate the absorption of the drug
30. Air or oil entering circulatory system person is called...
-a) Turbulence
-b) Esophagia
+c) Embolism
31. The most dangerous allergic reaction after drug administration
called...
+ a) Anaphylactic shock
-b) Hemorrhagic shock
c) catatonic shock

1. Potential physiological problem patient:
a) the risk of diaper rash
b) sleep disturbance
c) nausea

2. The number of fundamental human needs according to V. Henderson:
a) 10
b) 14+
c) 13

3. For how long are long-term goals determined:
a) less than a week
b) one day
c) more than a week +

4. The nurse distributes medicines to patients inside. What kind of intervention is this?
a) dependent +
b) interdependent
c) independent

5. The patient has a temperature of 39 degrees, this is a problem:
a) potential
b) emotional
c) real +

6. How often can a nursing diagnosis change:
a) not often, several times in two days
b) often, sometimes several times a day +
c) does not change during treatment

7. Year of foundation of the Russian Red Cross Society:
a) 1877
b) 1878
c) 1876+

8. Non-verbal means of communication:
a) facial expressions +
b) language
c) speech

9. Henderson developed her model based on the theory:
a) Nightingale
b) Orem
c) Maslow +

10. Founder of the Red Cross Society:
a) Paul
b) Dunant +
c) Oppel

11. For how long are short-term goals determined:
a) up to 7 days +
b) up to two weeks
c) for one day

12. Internal health risk factors:
a) bad habits
b) hereditary diseases +
c) hypodynamia

13. Demographic indicator:
a) fertility +
b) disability
c) pain

14. Social needs according to Maslow, level:
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3 +

15. The first community of the sister of mercy in Russia:
a) Holy Trinity +
b) Georgievskaya
c) Holy Cross

16. Responsibilities of a nurse:
a) a healthy environment
b) respect for the rights of the patient +
c) mercy

17. The nurse fills in the nursing history:
a) before release
b) after visiting doctors
c) daily +

18. Year of the First All-Russian Conference on the Theory of Nursing:
a) 1998
b) 1993+
c) 1996

19. Maslow depicted the levels of needs as:
a) square
b) circle
c) pyramids +

20. Can a nurse independently plan dependent interventions:
a) yes
b) no +
c) sometimes

21. The number of levels of training of specialists in nursing:
a) 3 +
b) 5
at 4

22. The doctor who supervised the activities of the sisters during the period of the Crimean company:
a) Sklifasovsky
b) Pirogov +
c) Botkin

23. A patient in nursing is a person in need of:
a) treatment
b) prevention
c) care +

24. The second stage of the nursing process:
a) setting goals for nursing care
b) identifying the patient's problems +
c) nursing examination

25. The third stage of the nursing process:
a) examination of the patient
b) identifying the patient's problems
c) drawing up a care plan +

26. One of the problems of bioethics:
a) mercy
b) euthanasia +
c) humanism

27. Health is the dynamic harmony of the individual with the environment, achieved through:
a) adaptation +
b) hardening
c) nutrition

28. How many stages in the nursing process:
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5 +

29. Subjective method of nursing examination:
a) questioning the patient
b) examination of the patient
c) definition of edema

30. External health risk factors:
a) hereditary diseases
b) polluted environment +
c) hereditary predisposition